Starting this week I will begin posting what I hope will be a weekly discussion of a variant found in Codex Alexandrinus along with evidence believed to stand for and against. Today will be the first such post, this one discussing the major variant at John 1:18 between υἱός and θεός.
The variant - John 1:18
There are two major versions of this verse:
1. 18 θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
This version using θεὸς is found in the majority of the Greek New Testament editions following the 'Alexandrian' tradition, the 'Critical texts', this example is from the (in)famous Westcott and Hort Greek New Testament (WH GNT). English translations that are translated from 'Critical' GNTs such as WH or the NA/UBS generally follow this variant.
For example the Updated American Standard Version (UASV), a modern revision based on the American Standard Version (ASV) reads:
18 No one has seen God at any time; the only begotten God who is in the bosom of the Father, that one has made him fully known.
Which is a departure from the ASV which had 'Son' in this verse and is mirrored in some other modern English translations such as the NASB 95 ('the only begotten God') and LSB ('the only begotten God') but not in others based on the ASV such as the World English Bible (WEB) ('the only born Son') and Refreshed ASV ('the only begotten Son').
18 Θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε· ὁ μονογενὴς υἱός, ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρός, ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο.
The second follows the Byzantine majority position including the so-called 'Textus Receptus (TR) that forms the basis for translations such as the King James Version (KJV also known as the 'Authorised Version (AV)):
18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him. (KJV)
The Evidence For Each Position
There are more than a few variants that are difficult to determine which is the most accurate version. In some ways this one is one of those. Both variants appear early in the history of the New Testament's transmission.
The variant θεός first appears in Papyrus 66 (P66) which is commonly believed to have been written somewhere between 150 and 250 AD - this is about 60 to 150 years after John is traditionally believed to have been written (i.e. c.96 AD). It is also found in the writings of Clement of Alexandria who died around 215 AD.
Seems conclusive, right? The variant is clearly very early, dating from the second century AD, so it must be the right one!
Well... no, not so fast, because the other version, υἰός, is also found in relatively early manuscripts and quotes. For example, the late second century Christian scholar Clement of Alexandria (a contemporary to P66) quoted the verse three times in his writings and in two of the three he used 'υἰός' and in one he used 'θεός'. He also quoted an early Gnostic named Theodotus the Gnostic (2nd c. AD) twice and used each variant once in his quotes. Early manuscripts such as Alexandrinus (GA 02, c.400 AD) and Washingtonius (GA 032 - 4th/5th c) also have υἰός.
So, How Can We Know Which is Right?
Do not despair friend, this one is fairly easy to determine.
How? By the spread of exemplars and the traditions from which the witnesses from which each variant comes. Let us take a look, but first a 'short' introduction to textual criticism and the textual families to give some background.
Categorising Texts - A Brief Introduction
Johann Albrecht Bengel, an 18th century German scholar was the first to propose textual families with his 'African' and 'Asiatic' families in 1734. This was refined by Johann Jakob Wettstein who first proposed the now familiar 'Western', 'Alexandrian', and 'Byzantine' families between 1774 and 1807. In 1777 another German scholar Johann Jakob Griesbach produced a list of nine manuscripts that he believed to be 'Alexandrian.' In 1808 Johann Leonard Hug proposed the theory that the Alexandrian text was a refinement of what he called a 'wild' text, which he thought to be something like the Western text of Codex Bezae rather than the 'Free' text of Gregory's Category IV.
The first to propose a 'Critical' text was English scholar and theologian Richard Bently who in 1721 thought that a revised Greek text could be based on Codex Alexandrinus and began working with 02 and a number of other manuscripts categorised as either Byzantine or which remain uncategorised. This work was completed by Karl Lachmann in 1846 in the form of his 'Novum Testamentum Graecae ex recensione Caroli Lachmanni', a complete GNT with a very sparse set of footnotes that give no witnesses but do sometimes provide alternative readings in the form of 'x = y'.
During the course of the 19th century various scholars such as Lachmann, John Mill, Brooke Foss Westcott and Fenton John Anthony Hort, Samuel Tregelles, Constantin von Tischendorf, and Eberhard Nestle who believed that the Alexandrian text was the 'urtext' or 'original text' of the Greek New Testament. These men produced various 'Critical' texts based on their ideas and building on the work of those who went before them.
The Alexandrian text (Category I) these men championed is a type found originally in Egypt and the majority of examples have been found or traced to this region. It appears during the 2nd century and is found in hundreds of early manuscripts, sometimes mixed with early Byzantine (Category II when mixed and V when the bulk of a book) and Western readings (Category IV). Though they became rare manuscripts of this family were still being copied into the 13th century (e.g. Revelation of GA 2053 and 2062).
Favouring the TR and Byzantine text were men such as Daniel Whitby (ardent opponent of Mill), Frederick Nolan, John William Burgon, and Frederick Henry Ambrose Scrivener.
This process has continued into the 20th and 21st centuries with refinements such as Gregory's Categories of texts splitting manuscripts in to Category I, II, III, IV, V and uncategorisable (i.e. examples that are too short or too damaged to place in a category).
A movement defending the Byzantine family also began in the 19th century with men such as Burgon and continued into the 20th century championed by scholars such as Zane Hodges and Arthur Farstad (the Majority Text - 1982), Maurice Robinson (The New Testament in the Original Greek Byzantine Textform 1991, 2005, 2018 with William Pierpont), and Wilbur Pickering (The Greek New Testament According to Family 35 - 2014).
The Byzantine text forms the majority of manuscripts and appears in witnesses at around the same time as the Alexandrian text and often in some books of an early manuscript along with Western (Cat IV), Free (Cat III) and Alexandrian (Cat I) in other books. A good example of this is Codex Alexandrinus which leans heavily towards Byzantine in the Gospels and 'Free' in the remainder of the New Testament and generally Alexandrian in the Septuagint. From about the 8th century the bulk of Byzantine manuscripts are found in Greece and Anatolia, the heart of the Byzantine Empire. This is not surprising as during the 7th century Arab invaders began conquering and colonising the southern regions of the Byzantine empire and imposing their religion, Islam, on the inhabitants, which severely restricted the copying of Christian texts including the Bible after this time.
The Stabby Bit At the Tip
So, what is the point of what I've just written?
This is one of those examples where not only the lifespan of the variants, but also the spread of textual families gives us a reasonable answer as to what is the correct variant and in the case of John 1:18 we have a definitive answer.
Looking at the witnesses we see a clear pattern. In favour of 'θεός' we have seven known manuscripts - P66, P75, 01, 03, 04*, 019, and 33 supporting this reading. All except 019 are Alexandrian (Cat I), 019 is Category II. The newest is 33, a minuscule dated to about the 9th century. A handful of early translations (Syriac, Georgian, Sahidic, and Bohairic Coptic) as well as a few quotes from early Christian writers give additional support.
On the other hand, the earliest manuscript witness for 'υἰός' are Alexandrinus, Ephraemi Rescriptus, and Washingtonius which are all dated to the late 4th or early 5th century. This is followed by dozens of other manuscripts, translations (most Vulgate manuscripts, some Syriac, Armenian, Ethiopian, Georgian, and Slavic), all Lectionaries containing John, not to mention many early Christian writers. As far as I can tell, there are no Category I or II manuscripts but Category III (Free - e.g. Family 13), Category IV (Western - all in the form of 'Italic' or Old Latin manuscripts), and V (all Byzantine) are strongly represented with the latter being the bulk of the examples.
Outliers
There are two other variants that can be dismissed with confidence since their witnesses consist entirely of a couple of translations and three quotes. These are:
Μονογενὴς υἱὸς θεοῦ - VI/VII Old Latin codex q along with one Latin quote from Irenaeus (of three), and one quote by Ambrose (of 11 apparent quotes)
ὁ μονογενής - a handful of Vulgate MSS and Ps-Vigilius (5th century 1 of 2)
Oddly, the 2020 edition of the NASB reads 'God the only Son' which would be a version of the first of these minor variants. The fact they have 'Son' in italics indicates they are trying to find a balance between the two primary variants and the resemblance to this particular variant is coincidental.
Conclusion
This variant seems to be clear cut. It is divided clearly between a small number of early Alexandrian manuscripts, a few translations, and a handful of quotes by early Christian writers for 'god' on one side and on the other side for 'son' is supported by many hundreds of manuscripts, numerous early translations, all lectionaries, and many, many quotes by early writers.
Obviously, we cannot be one hundred percent certain that 'υἰός' is the true and original reading because we do not have any first century examples of the Gospel of John, but given the preponderance of evidence pushes us in this direction, we can be highly confident it is indeed the correct reading.
We can safely dismiss the outliers, since they have very little support. But it would be rash to dismiss 'υἰός' since it has the strongest support across the board. The only reason I can see to do so is a rather blind adherence to the Alexandrian family that ignores the evidence because it doesn't fit a position.
The evidence for 'υἰός' dates from the second century in the form of quotes and continues until the advent of movable type printing ended copying of the Greek New Testament by hand. Support for 'θεός' is only found in a tiny number of manuscripts, translations, and quotes and is found no later than the 9th century in the case of GA 33 after which time it disappears from the manuscript record.
*Note* It's important to understand that neither variant has any effect on Christology or any doctrine. Jesus is called 'θεός' in verse 1 of John and 'υἰός' in many other verses, so this is a variant that changes literally nothing except a word in a verse. So have no fear if you read one or the other in your GNT or a translation, you are not being misled - both terms apply to the Only begotten Son of God and both are accurate. It is just a question of what did the text really say and not of theology or Christology.
Where did it come from?
It is possible that 'θεός' may have appeared because of John 1:1 and some scribes believing that 'υἰός' may be an error moving them to replace it with 'θεός', one of the words used to describe the Son of God in that verse. It is unlikely that it came through confusion in reading the Nomina Sacra since the earliest exemplars are written in Uncial or Majuscule (all capitals) script. In this style of writing 'υἰός' was written ΥϹ while 'θεός' was written as ΘϹ. It would be very hard to mistake the one for the other.
Final Thought
Wrapping this very long first post up it is almost entirely certain that 'υἰός' is the correct reading. Between the weight of witnesses of all types and the remarkably uniform split between the Alexandrian family and all other families, there is little reason to see 'θεός' as the correct reading.
At some point I will create a page with more information on textual families and textual criticism to serve as a permanent reference for future posts on this subject. Until then this should help understand at least some of the things I have mentioned in this post. Succeeding posts will not include the relevant section in this post and should be significantly shorter. I would also like to create a page with information on major manuscripts to help with understanding these.
Come back this weekend for the next Journal upload if you are using those and next Wednesday (Australian time) for the second 'Verse of the Week.'